When thinking of the terms publics and counter publics, many social movements come to mind. The Civil Rights Movement of the 1950s and 60s, the LGBT movement of the last decade, and many others. One that comes to mind for me is the rise of the Nazi Party in Post-war Germany. This example raises an important question. When a public or counter public becomes the State, are they still considered either?
According to Warner's classification, a public "must be organized by something other than the State." In the example of the National Socialist German Worker's Party, it began as a public, then formed into the party of the German government. Does this mean that the Nazi Party is no longer considered a public? I think not. Unlike most political parties, the Nazi Party shaped its policy and discourse around their issue of Jews in Europe. This anti-Semitic rhetoric was the basis of most of the actions of Germany from the mid 1930s until their demise in 1945.
In post-World War 1 Germany, the rise of the Nazi party served as a counter public to many of the political movements at the time. It had a specific anti-Semetic and anti-communist rhetoric, as well as being a strong critic of capitalism. All these discourses could have singular publics formed around them, but they all fell under the Nazi party. Once they rose to power, their membership in the public was not revoked, as Warner would assert, but rather empowered.
So I disagree with Warner's claim that a public cannot be organized by the State. Perhaps in the U.S. where the government is not motivated by a specific social issue, or imperative, his assertion may stand. When a public transitions into the role of the State, it cannot be denied that it remains a public.
According to Warner's classification, a public "must be organized by something other than the State." In the example of the National Socialist German Worker's Party, it began as a public, then formed into the party of the German government. Does this mean that the Nazi Party is no longer considered a public? I think not. Unlike most political parties, the Nazi Party shaped its policy and discourse around their issue of Jews in Europe. This anti-Semitic rhetoric was the basis of most of the actions of Germany from the mid 1930s until their demise in 1945.
In post-World War 1 Germany, the rise of the Nazi party served as a counter public to many of the political movements at the time. It had a specific anti-Semetic and anti-communist rhetoric, as well as being a strong critic of capitalism. All these discourses could have singular publics formed around them, but they all fell under the Nazi party. Once they rose to power, their membership in the public was not revoked, as Warner would assert, but rather empowered.
So I disagree with Warner's claim that a public cannot be organized by the State. Perhaps in the U.S. where the government is not motivated by a specific social issue, or imperative, his assertion may stand. When a public transitions into the role of the State, it cannot be denied that it remains a public.